To What Extent Did Ferdinand And Isabella Lay The Spanish Golden Age
The Spanish Golden Age:In the context 1474 to 1598, to what extent did Ferdinand and Isabella lay the foundations for a Spanish Golden Age?
By the end of the 16th century Spain had within the space of 100 year risen to become the greatest
power in Europe and as quickly and dramatically as it had risen out of a divided peninsular it came
crashing down back into despair. By the end of Philip II reign the country had been become
bankrupt several times due to excessive spending through his reign, and as Woodward states
there was ‘ plague, famine, depopulation, inflation'(1) But regardless of what happened at the end
the time before hand had been called the Spanish Golden Age where Spain had a vast empire
stretching along …show more content…
1479 the year by when both Ferdinand and Isabella had become the king and queen of their
realms, Aragon and Castille is what Spain was known at this time, Spain as a whole country did not
exists until during Phillips reign however the pre marriage agreement of F and I was that they
would rule their kingdoms jointly and any acts or policies that could be put forward would be in
place for both Aragon and Castille. At the time of their succession to their thrones neither kingdom was in a
state to deal with anything beyond their own borders, the main problem was that both governments were
different styles of ruling, Aragon(A) was a more federal style of government where there were 3 separate
Cortes all with which F had to deal with and could not make any decisions without whereas in Castilee (C) I
the Cortes had little to no power over how she would rule her country without any restraints. Now after a
long succession battle after the death of the previous monarch of C the nobility had began to resist I and so
the setting up of the Hermandades helped secure peace in her territory by 1498 and had
By the end of the 16th century Spain had within the space of 100 year risen to become the greatest
power in Europe and as quickly and dramatically as it had risen out of a divided peninsular it came
crashing down back into despair. By the end of Philip II reign the country had been become
bankrupt several times due to excessive spending through his reign, and as Woodward states
there was ‘ plague, famine, depopulation, inflation'(1) But regardless of what happened at the end
the time before hand had been called the Spanish Golden Age where Spain had a vast empire
stretching along …show more content…
1479 the year by when both Ferdinand and Isabella had become the king and queen of their
realms, Aragon and Castille is what Spain was known at this time, Spain as a whole country did not
exists until during Phillips reign however the pre marriage agreement of F and I was that they
would rule their kingdoms jointly and any acts or policies that could be put forward would be in
place for both Aragon and Castille. At the time of their succession to their thrones neither kingdom was in a
state to deal with anything beyond their own borders, the main problem was that both governments were
different styles of ruling, Aragon(A) was a more federal style of government where there were 3 separate
Cortes all with which F had to deal with and could not make any decisions without whereas in Castilee (C) I
the Cortes had little to no power over how she would rule her country without any restraints. Now after a
long succession battle after the death of the previous monarch of C the nobility had began to resist I and so
the setting up of the Hermandades helped secure peace in her territory by 1498 and had