Practice Exam Questions on Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves

Practice Exam #4 – Chapters 12, 13, 14 & 15

1) What would normally be found within the central canal of the spinal cord?
a) Blood
b) Myelin
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Air
e) Gray matter

2) The filum terminale is
a) The roots of spinal nerves hanging inferiorly from the end of the spinal cord in the vertebral column
b) An indentation on the dorsal side of the spinal cored
c) The tapered end of the spinal cord
d) An extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx
e) Where the cell bodies of sensory neurons are located

3) The cauda equina is
a) The roots of spinal nerves hanging inferiorly from the end of the spinal cord in the vertebral column
b) An indentation on the dorsal side of the spinal cored
c) The tapered end of the spinal cord
d) An extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx
e) Where the cell bodies of sensory neurons are located

4) The dorsal root ganglion is
a) The roots of spinal nerves hanging inferiorly from the end of the spinal cord in the vertebral column
b) An indentation on the dorsal side of the spinal cored
c) The tapered end of the spinal cord
d) An extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx
e) Where the cell bodies of sensory neurons are located

5) The part of a spinal nerve that contains only efferent fibers is the
a) Dorsal root
b) Ventral root
c) Dorsal ramus
d) Ventral ramus
e) Plexus

6) To do a lumbar puncture, the needle is inserted into the
a) Central canal
b) Sacral plexus
c) Nucleus pulposus
d) Subarachnoid space
e) Gray commissure

7) The nerve that stimulates the diaphragm to contract is the
a) Median nerve
b) Phrenic nerve
c) Sciatic nerve
d) Radial nerve
e) Second intercostals nerve

8) All of the following arise from the brachial plexus except the
a) Axillary nerve
b) Phrenic nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Ulnar nerve
e) Median nerve

9) The endoneurium is the
a) Lining of the central canal of the spinal cord
b) Space between the pia mater and the spinal cord
c) Connective tissue surrounding an individual axon
d) Connective tissue surrounding an entire nerve
e) Group of neurons forming a spinal tract

10) The spinal cord is suspended in the middle of its dural sheath by
a) Ascending spinal tracts
b) The cauda equine
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Denticulate ligaments
e) Epidural fat

11) The Subdural space normally contains
a) Fat
b) Interstitial fluid
c) Cerebral spinal fluid
d) Blood
e) Air

12) Neurons that transmit impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system are called
a) Motor neurons
b) Association neurons
c) Bipolar neurons
d) Sensory neurons
e) Efferent neurons

13) The innermost layer of the Meninges is the
a) Dura mater
b) Arachnoid
c) Pia mater
d) Gray commissure
e) Conus medullaris

14) Ascending tracts contain
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Cerebrospinal fluid
d) Only cell bodies
e) Only Unmyelinated axons

15) The spinal cord is continuous with the
a) Occipital bone
b) Cerebral cortex
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Thalamus
e) Coccyx

16) All of the following would be examples of autonomic reflexes except
a) Rising heart rat as blood pressure drops
b) Contraction of smooth muscle in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract to p7uch food along
c) Secretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla during stress
d) Contraction of the quadriceps femoris with the patellar tendon is stretched
e) Dilation of blood vessels in the skin when body temperature increases

17) The contra lateral reflex that helps you maintain your balance when the flexor reflex is initiated is the
a) Stretch reflex
b) Tendon reflex
c) Crossed extensor reflex
d) Abdominal reflex
e) Patellar reflex

18) Slight stretching of the skeletal muscle spindles will initiate a (n)
a) Autonomic reflex
b) Somatic reflex arc
c) Muscle contraction
d) Visceral reflex
e) All answers are correct

19) Stepping on a tack may stimulate the
a) Crossed extensor reflex
b) Flexor reflex
c) Spinal reflex
d) Intersegmental reflexes
e) All answers are correct

20) In an adult, curling under of all the toes in response to gentle stroking of the lateral outer margin of the sole is
a) Normal
b) A positive Babinski sign
c) Indicative of damage to the corticospinal tract
d) Both A and B are correct
e) Both B and c are correct

21) The branches of spinal nerves that form networks called plexuses are the
a) Dorsal roots
b) Ventral roots
c) Dorsal rami
d) Ventral rami
e) Rami communicantes

22) The falx cerebri is
a) The deep groove between the precentral and post central gyri
b) The lobe of the cerebrum not visible on the surface
c) An extension of the dura mater separating the cerebral hemispheres
d) An extension of the dura mater separating the Cerebellar hemispheres
e) An ex tension of the dura mater separating the c cerebrum from the cerebellum

23) The blood-brain barrier does not prevent passage of
a) Any hormones
b) Most bacteria
c) Vitamins
d) Red blood cells
e) Lipid-soluble substances

24) The brain stem is made up of the
a) Cerebellum, pons and hypothalamus
b) Medulla oblongata, thalamus and midbrain
c) Medulla oblongata, hypothalamus and pons
d) Medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain
e) Midbrain, hypothalamus and thalamus

25) The function of a choroid plexus is to
a) Receive sensation from the viscera
b) Send motor impulses to the diaphragm
c) Produce cerebrospinal fluid
d) Reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid
e) Transmit impulses from one cerebral hemisphere to the other

26) The function of Arachnoid villi is to
a) Receive sensation from the viscera
b) Send motor impulses to the diaphragm
c) Produce cerebrospinal fluid
d) Reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid
e) Transmit impulses from one cerebral hemisphere to the other

27) The blood-CSF barrier is composed of
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Myelin
d) Dense irregular connective tissue
e) Ependymal cells

28) Damage to the cerebellum would result in
a) Loss of memory
b) Uncoordinated movement
c) Inability to dream
d) Altered pituitary function
e) Uncontrolled body temperature

29) The reason hydrocephalus is so dangerous is that
a) Too many toxic products flood the brain
b) Excess cerebrospinal fluid puts pressure on neurons damaging them
c) The brain dehydrates
d) Bacterial can grow more easily in accumulated fluid
e) It causes excessive release of hormones from the hypothalamus

30) A sudden noise occurs behind you and you turn around in response. This is a reflex, which is the responsibility of the
a) Substantia nigra
b) Medial lemniscus
c) Superior colliculi
d) Inferior colliculi
e) Basal ganglia

31) The satiety center is located in the
a) Thalamus
b) Hypothalamus
c) Epithalamus
d) Basal ganglia
e) All are correct

32) Basal ganglia contain the following ganglia except
a) Globus pallidus
b) Putamen
c) Amygdala
d) Caudate nucleus
e) All are part of the basal ganglia

33) Releasing hormones that control the anterior pituitary gland are produced by the
a) Pineal gland
b) Thalamus
c) Hypothalamus
d) Medulla oblongata
e) Corpus callosum

34) Patterns of sleep are established by the
a) Hypothalamus
b) Substantia nigra
c) Corpora quadrigemina
d) Pyramids
e) Arbor vitae

35) The cerebral hemispheres are connected internally by the
a) Intermediate mass
b) Basal ganglia
c) Corpus callosum
d) Arachnoid villi
e) Habenular nuclei

36) The primary motor area of the cerebral cortex is located in the
a) Frontal lobe
b) Temporal lobe
c) Occipital lobe
d) Parietal lobe
e) Insula

37) Damage to the Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone would most likely result in loss of
a) Vision
b) Sensations to the side of the face
c) The sense of smell
d) The ability to speak
e) Equilibrium

38) A cerebral vascular accident is also referred to as a
a) Coronary
b) Heart attack
c) Stroke
d) Dementia
e) All answers are correct

39) Temporary cerebral dysfunction including dizziness, weakness, etc is referred to as
a) Cerebral vascular accident
b) Stroke
c) Transient ischemic attack
d) Alzheimer’s disease
e) All answers are correct

40) At autopsy, the brains of Alzheimer’s disease will show the following:
a) Loss of neurons that secrete acetylcholine
b) Beta-amyloid plaques
c) Neurofibrillary tangles
d) All are correct

41) Conscious awareness of external or internal stimuli defines the
a) Autonomic nervous system
b) Motor nervous system
c) Sensory nervous system
d) Peripheral nervous system

42) The conscious awareness and interpretation of sensation is called
a) Modality
b) Transduction
c) Reception
d) Perception
e) Conduction

43) Which of the following is not considered a special sense?
a) Smell
b) Vision
c) Pain
d) Taste
e) Equilibrium

44) A stimulus that elicits a receptor potential causes
a) Direct release of neurotransmitter via exocytosis from synaptic vesicles
b) Conduction of a nerve impulse along a first-order sensory nerve fiber
c) Initiation of an action potential in the receptor
d) A sub-threshold generator potential
e) Reuptake of neurotransmitter from the extracellular fluid

45) Exteroreceptors include all of the following except
a) Vision
b) Joint position
c) Taste
d) Smell
e) Touch

46) Free nerve endings are
a) Bare dendrites
b) Base axons
c) Encapsulated nerve endings
d) Nonencapsulated nerve endings
e) All are correct

47) All of the following would be sensed by mechanoreceptors except
a) Hearing
b) Pressure
c) Touch
d) Equilibrium
e) Light

48) During a maintained, constant stimulus, a generator potential or a receptor potential decreases in amplitude in a phenomenon known as
a) Adaptation
b) Transduction
c) Propagation
d) Perception
e) Integration

49) Tactile sensations other than itch and tickle are detected by
a) Free nerve endings
b) Encapsulated mechanoreceptors
c) Special senses
d) Encapsulated proprioceptors
e) Nociceptors

50) An afferent neuron is a
a) Motor neuron
b) Sensory neuron
c) Neuromuscular junction
d) All autonomic neurons
e) All are correct

51) Lower motor neurons whose cell bodies are in nuclei in the brain stem stimulate
a) Upper motor neurons
b) Interneurons
c) Movements of the face and head
d) Movements of limbs
e) Parts of the cerebellum

52) G proteins activated by binding of odorant molecules to olfactory receptors cause
a) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter
b) Activation of adenylate cyclase
c) Influx of calcium ions
d) Bending of olfactory hairs
e) Hyperpolarization of olfactory neurons

53) First-order olfactory neurons synapse with second-order neurons in the
a) Olfactory epithelium
b) Cribriform plate
c) Olfactory tract
d) Temporal lobe
e) Olfactory bulbs

54) Olfactory sensations reach the brain via
a) Cranial nerve I
b) Cranial nerve II
c) Cranial nerve VII
d) Cranial nerve VIII
e) Spinal nerves C1

55) In order for a substance to be tasted, it must be
a) A partially denatured protein
b) Of a pH below 7
c) An ionic compound
d) Dissolved in saliva
e) Both C and D are correct

56) Most impulses related to gustatory sensations arising on the tongue are conveyed to the brain via
a) Cranial nerve I
b) Cranial nerve II
c) Cranial nerve VII
d) Cranial nerve VIII
e) Spinal nerve C1

57) The Lacrimal apparatus produces
a) Sweat
b) Sebum
c) Aqueous humor
d) Tears
e) Both C and D are correct

58) Lacrimal fluid contains a protective bacterial enzyme called
a) Isoenzyme
b) Lysozyme
c) Isozyme
d) All are correct

59) Intraocular pressure is produced mainly by
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Constriction of the pupil
d) Lacrimal secretions
e) Photopigments

60) The spaces anterior to the lens are filled with
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Photoreceptors
d) Lacrimal gland secretions
e) Air

61) The retina is held in place by the
a) Optic disc
b) Vitreous body
c) Ciliary muscle
d) Bipolar neurons
e) Iris

62) Photoreceptors are located in the
a) Choroid
b) Cornea
c) Iris
d) Retina
e) Sclera

63) For sharpest visual acuity, light rays must be refracted so that they
a) Change wavelength to fall within the visible range
b) Stimulate constriction of the pupil
c) Turn Photopigments in the lens into their colorless form
d) Hit the melanin in the choroid
e) Fall directly on the central fovea

64) The central fovea is a small depression in the center of the
a) Macula lutea of the retina
b) Optic disc of the retina
c) Lens
d) Cornea
e) Vitreous b body

65) Which of the following occurs when trying to focus on a close object?
a) Relaxation of the ciliary muscle to flatten the lens
b) Relaxation of the ciliary muscle to make the lens more convex
c) Contraction of the ciliary muscle to flatten the lens
d) Contraction of the ciliary muscle to make the lens more convex
e) Contraction of the ciliary muscle to increase the diameter of the pupil

66) Which of the following is formed directly from vitamin A?
a) Rhodopsin
b) Lumirhodopsin
c) Metarhodopsin
d) Retinal
e) Retinoic cid

67) Suffering from Vitamin A deficiency leads to
a) Tunnel vision
b) Glaucoma
c) Night blindness
d) Color blindness
e) Astigmatism

68) The characteristic shared by photopigments in rods and cones that they all
a) Contain the same opsin molecule
b) Respond to the same wavelengths of light
c) Contain retinal as the light-absorbing molecule
d) Both A and C are correct
e) A,B, and C are correct

69) The optic nerve is made up of the
a) Axons of the rods and cones
b) Axons of the bipolar cells
c) Axons of the ganglion cells
d) Dendrites of the bipolar cells
e) Dendrites of the ganglion cells

70) What happens at the optic chiasma?
a) Rods stimulate bipolar cells
b) The optic nerve exits the eye
c) Visual input is perceived
d) The optic nerves cross
e) Aqueous humor is re absorbed

71) The neurotransmitter in rods is
a) Acetylcholine
b) Substance P
c) Glutamate
d) Dopamine
e) Epinephrine

72) The ossicles are the major structures of the
a) External ear
b) Middle ear
c) Vestibule
d) Cochlea
e) Auditory regions of the cerebrum

73) First-order sensory neurons of the cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve terminate in the
a) Thalamus
b) Occipital lobe
c) Basilar membrane
d) Medulla oblongata
e) Vestibular branch

74) Which one of the following sequences correctly traces the sound wave across the middle ear: - 1. tympanic membrane 2. malleus 3. incus 4. stapes 5. oval window
a) 5,4,2,3,1
b) 1,2,3,4,5
c) 2,4,5,1,3,
d) 3,1,4,2,5
e) 4,5,1,2,3

Use the following choices for questions 75 – 79.
A. arachnoid B. dura mater C. pia mater D. dorsal root ganglion E. receptor
F. integration center G. effector H. sympathetic ganglia I. Prevertebral ganglia

75) _________Middle layer of the Meninges
76) _________Innermost layer of the Meninges
77) _________The cell bodies of peripheral sensory neurons are located in
78) _________Changes in the environment are sensed by the component of a reflex are known as the________
79) _________In a somatic reflex, skeletal muscle is the _______________________

Use the following choices for questions 80 – 85.
A. Cranial nerve IV B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve VIII D. Cranial nerve III
E. Cranial nerve XII F. Cranial nerve XI

80) _________Vestibulocochlear
81) _________Vagus
82) _________Hypoglossal
83) _________Trochlear
84) _________Oculomotor
85) _________Accessory

Use the following choices for questions 85 – 90.
A. midbrain B. medulla oblongata C. thalamus D. cerebellum
E. Epithalamus F. hypothalamus G. Pons

86) _________Primary respiratory center
87) _________Associated with cerebral peduncles
88) _________Relays most sensory input
89) _________Regulates posture and balance
90) _________Associated with the pineal body

91) The upfolds of cerebral gray matter are know as ______________________

92) The ______________________________is a stalk-like structure that attaches the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus

93) The _____________________have the primary role in maintenance of dynamic equilibrium

94) The anatomical name for the eyelids is the _________________________

95) The hole in the center of the iris is the ___________________________

96) The first point of refraction as light passes into the eye is the _____________________________

97) The external auditory meatus and the middle ear are separated by the ___________________________

98) Gustatory cells are located in the ____________________________

99) The fluid inside the cochlear duct is ___________________________

100) The gland protected inside the sella tursica is the ____________________________________

ANSWERS:
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. E
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. E
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. E
24. D
25. C
26. D
27. E
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. C
40. D
41. C
42. D
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. E
48. A
49. B
50. B
51. C
52. B
53. E
54. A
55. D
56. C
57. D
58. B
59. A
60. A
61. B
62. D
63. E
64. A
65. D
66. D
67. C
68. C
69. C
70. D
71. C
72. B
73. D
74. B
75. A
76. C
77. D
78. E
79. G
80. C
81. B
82. E
83. A
84. D
85. F
86. F
87. A
88. C
89. D
90. E
91. Gyri
92. Infundibulum
93. Crista
94. Palpebrae
95. Pupil
96. Cornea
97. Tympanic membrane
98. Taste bud
99. Endolymph
100. Pituitary gland