Definition Of Piety In Euthyphro, By Plato
Throughout the passage Euthyphro written by Plato a discussion arises dealing with the question “What is piety”? This question arises after a man named Euthyphro is found walking into a courthouse preparing to prosecute against his own father who took part in a murder. His friend Socrates eventually confronts him when he sees him and once the story is explained to Socrates and once he calms down due to being surprised that Euthyphro is prosecuting against his own father he asks Euthyphro what exactly he considers the definition of piety and impiety to be. Euthyphro offers two main definitions of what he believes piety and impiety are. Euthyphros first definition consist of saying that “Piety is doing as I am doing; that is to say, prosecuting
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This question seems incredibly reasonable to ask because with all his definitions given it is possible to question if the gods will not approve of the prosecution because it is an act of not being loyal to ones own family which could be questioned as being an impious act. I feel as though Euthyphro states that his act is not impious if the definitions he gives are taken into account. He clearly states in the first definition that piety is “Prosecuting any one who is guilty of murder, sacrilege, or of any other similar crime whether he be your father or mother, or some other person, that makes no difference” (Marino 10). Euthyphro also states that he understands that the gods may all see his actions differently but that they would all come to the conclusion that a murderer needs to be punished regardless to the connection of who is prosecuting against them. I don’t feel as though Euthyphro ignored the question per-say due to the evaluation of his definitions but I do believe that Euthyphro would never be able to give an answer or definition that was good enough for Socrates. Perhaps, if a different person or if the circumstances were different then Socrates would accept the definitions or examples given but due to the circumstances …show more content…
Take the current society into consideration; the world has always taken part in unethical actions but lately riots, shootings, increase in addictions specifically focusing on alcohol and drugs. All of these acts are clearly not exactly what a person would consider ethical or an act representing piety. It is impossible to see a god approving the act of killing an innocent bystander if anything, the gods would consider this society to be following acts showcasing the definition of impiety. With this society having so much negativity present within it, it may appear to be a challenge to focus on living a positive life or completing acts of piety, which can cause a person to struggle with living an ethical life. It is possible that due to the time period this was written it is considered more of an issue that Euthyphro is prosecuting against his father due to the fact they are family but in this society it is easy to see that some people are less family oriented and if a person prosecuted against their father today, which happens quite often due to the frequent impious acts in the world today that the action wouldn’t even be as much of a shock to someone like it was to Socrates. Also, if a person values their religion for example, then they may still focus on the second definition of what piety is considered to be “Piety is dear to the gods and
This question seems incredibly reasonable to ask because with all his definitions given it is possible to question if the gods will not approve of the prosecution because it is an act of not being loyal to ones own family which could be questioned as being an impious act. I feel as though Euthyphro states that his act is not impious if the definitions he gives are taken into account. He clearly states in the first definition that piety is “Prosecuting any one who is guilty of murder, sacrilege, or of any other similar crime whether he be your father or mother, or some other person, that makes no difference” (Marino 10). Euthyphro also states that he understands that the gods may all see his actions differently but that they would all come to the conclusion that a murderer needs to be punished regardless to the connection of who is prosecuting against them. I don’t feel as though Euthyphro ignored the question per-say due to the evaluation of his definitions but I do believe that Euthyphro would never be able to give an answer or definition that was good enough for Socrates. Perhaps, if a different person or if the circumstances were different then Socrates would accept the definitions or examples given but due to the circumstances …show more content…
Take the current society into consideration; the world has always taken part in unethical actions but lately riots, shootings, increase in addictions specifically focusing on alcohol and drugs. All of these acts are clearly not exactly what a person would consider ethical or an act representing piety. It is impossible to see a god approving the act of killing an innocent bystander if anything, the gods would consider this society to be following acts showcasing the definition of impiety. With this society having so much negativity present within it, it may appear to be a challenge to focus on living a positive life or completing acts of piety, which can cause a person to struggle with living an ethical life. It is possible that due to the time period this was written it is considered more of an issue that Euthyphro is prosecuting against his father due to the fact they are family but in this society it is easy to see that some people are less family oriented and if a person prosecuted against their father today, which happens quite often due to the frequent impious acts in the world today that the action wouldn’t even be as much of a shock to someone like it was to Socrates. Also, if a person values their religion for example, then they may still focus on the second definition of what piety is considered to be “Piety is dear to the gods and